How did Voldemort actually die?
I’ve been thinking about this, and the explanations we’re given don’t quite add up.
First, they say Harry is the master of the Elder Wand because he disarmed Malfoy. But here’s the thing — Malfoy wasn’t even holding the Elder Wand at the time. He was holding his own wand. So how does that work exactly? That connection feels like a bit of a stretch.
Then there’s the idea that the Killing Curse rebounded because the Elder Wand wouldn’t kill its true master. But if that’s the case, why wouldn’t the wand just refuse to cast the spell at all? Why would it rebound instead of simply malfunctioning? A rebound makes it look like Harry has some kind of protective magic strong enough to reflect Avada Kedavra, which raises even more questions.
I’d love to hear what you all think. Am I missing something, or is this one of those things we’re just supposed to accept and move on?
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A rebound makes it look like Harry has some kind of protective magic strong enough to reflect Avada Kedavra, which raises even more questions.
As many questions as Avada Kedavra rebounding raises, I still think it is the best explanation.
There were several factors at play:
- As you point out, Harry could have been master of the Elder Wand via disarming Draco, but that connection does feel like a bit of a stretch.
- Lily was given the chance to step aside, but chose to stand her ground despite being unable to defend herself. Dumbledore states that this act protected Harry and Dursleys (via Lily’s sister Petunia) until Harry comes of age at 17.
- At the end of GoF, Voldemort used Harry’s blood to create a new body for himself. Dumbledore later implies that this act gave Harry the option to not die when the pseudo-horcrux within him was destroyed.
- Harry walked willingly into the forest to what he assumed would be his death by the hand of Voldemort. Harry later implies that this act protects all survivors of the BoH from Voldemort. (“none of the spells you put on them are binding”)
Which exact combination of these factors granted Harry protection against an “Avada Kedavra cast by Voldemort with the Elder Wand” is not clear, but I think there’s more to it than just Harry being “Master of the Elder Wand”.
At the end of GoF, Voldemort used Harry’s blood to create a new body for himself. Dumbledore later implies that this act gave Harry the option to not die when the pseudo-horcrux within him was destroyed.
I think this reason is the most logical. But that would make Harry invincible to Voldemort, because Harry will never die as long as Voldemort lives, which seems… not a very well-constructed plot, like Harry can never die from Voldemort’s magic from the start, which makes all his struggles in vain.
Harry later implies that this act protects all survivors of the BoH from Voldemort.
Other reasons all have their loopholes. Harry’s sacrifice might be able to protect his allies just like the same magic Lily bestowed upon Harry, but I don’t think Harry’s sacrifice can protect himself from the Killing Curse.
I think letting the spell bounce back when Voldemort tries to kill Ginny would make more sense.
It didn’t refuse to work, it just wasn’t working at its true power, which is why harrys expelliarmus won the duel, and caused is own curse to rebound. Simple as that, the wand didn’t really want to do his bidding, or not at its true potential.
As for Malfoy yeah only thing is that he was the wands true owner, so apparently if you lose at all with any random it knows and is shamed by you? I think it’s something like it’s always trying to get to the strongest wizard.
It didn’t refuse to work, it just wasn’t working at its true power, which is why harrys expelliarmus won the duel, and caused is own curse to rebound. Simple as that, the wand didn’t really want to do his bidding, or not at its true potential.
The thing is, the book says the wand cast a Killing Curse straight at Harry. I don’t know whether it hit Harry or not. If it did hit Harry and then rebounded off him, how does the magic work there? Does Harry have some kind of aura around him?
If it didn’t hit Harry at all and the curse just flew 180 degrees back toward Voldemort, that would seem more convincing. But if that’s the case, why did the wand kill Harry the first time in the woods? Why didn’t it just fly out, spin around, and hit Voldemort then?
But if that’s the case, why did the wand kill Harry the first time in the woods? Why didn’t it just fly out, spin around, and hit Voldemort then?
At that specific point Harry Potter was still the second to last existing horcrux (leaving Nagini as the last one) so you could say the Elder Wand was actually aiming for the piece of Voldemort horcrux.
During the final duel Harry Potter is no longer a Voldemort horcrux, he’s just himself at that point.
At least that’s my take on how that worked out but it’s been a bit since I’ve read the books, maybe there’s a detail I’m forgetting.
At that specific point Harry Potter was still the second to last existing horcrux (leaving Nagini as the last one) so you could say the Elder Wand was actually aiming for the piece of Voldemort horcrux.
That makes sense logically. (If the curse didn’t hit Harry at all)
But that would be far too absurd a spectacle. Imagine Voldemort watching his own Killing Curse fly out and curve straight back at him mid-flight. LOL
I personally don’t think that fits the serious atmosphere of the final battle.
Skull-with-sunglasses Shaun essentially framed the rules of the Elder Wand and asks… who cares? Why is the finale of this epic saga about litigating the ownership for magical widgets? Why does it have no relation to the core philosophical disagreements of the openly bigoted antagonist versus the essentially neoliberal protagonist?
Of course it have the relation to the core philosophical disagreements of the openly bigoted antagonist versus the essentially neoliberal protagonist.
But that doesn’t mean readers should overlook the plot holes. Addressing these inconsistencies would make the story’s themes and message far more convincing and easier for readers to accept.
That video is so good.
On top of the tenuous ownership that Harry shared over the wand, he also cast “expelliarmus” which secured his ownership of the wand. So perhaps simultaneously to taking ownership the wand cast the “avada kadavra” spell and reversed the target from its new and well established owner to Voldemort…? It raises the question of if anybody could reflect a killing curse with expelliarmus but it makes more sense than, “the wand knew Harry disarmed Malfoy and didn’t want to kill him cause of that.”
I like this interpretation. And I checked the book does not say the spell rebounded.
But it did say “Harry saw Voldemort’s green jet meet his own spell, saw the Elder Wand fly high, dark against the sunrise, spinning…” So the avada kadavra is cast before expelliarmus hit voldemort.
