• Flying Squid@lemmy.world
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    6 months ago

    Again- If John 3:16 applies to everyone, so does John 3:18

    If John 3:18 doesn’t apply to everyone, neither does John 3:16.

    There is no rational alternative. Telling me I’m trying to misconstrue everything doesn’t change that point. Either both are universal or neither are universal.

    • Veraxus@lemmy.world
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      5 months ago

      Why would you think there is any kind of difference between them? All of John 3:1-21 is a single conversation about a single topic.

      • Flying Squid@lemmy.world
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        5 months ago

        I don’t think there is a difference.

        I think they both apply universally.

        You refuse to say whether or not 3:16 applies universally, you only claim 3:18 does not. All you have to do is say whether or not 3:16 is universal and you refuse to do it.

        • Veraxus@lemmy.world
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          5 months ago

          I see. I am talking about the conversation as a whole, since I dislike taking verses out of context.

          The underlying topic is universal: Righteousness and who gains eternal life at the Resurrection. Jesus teaching is entirely centered around this. So in a way, it’s all universal.

          But there’s an extra layer to the entire conversation: acceptance of Jesus as the Messiah. So the entire conversation is filled with scathing barbs aimed at Israel, and Nicodemus as a representative of Israel. 18 contains one of these barbs. Does this help?