Ukrainian officials say their military is now using a long-range missile that was designed and manufactured domestically and can reach targets inside Russia

  • DarienGS@lemmy.world
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    1 year ago

    Or, they’ve found a viable way to disguise donated long-range missiles so they can be used to strike back at Russia without implicating the country that provided them.

    • Telodzrum@lemmy.world
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      1 year ago

      These are 100% identifiable from debris. No one would be fooled by such a farce.

    • flying_monkies@kbin.social
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      1 year ago

      At this point, if Russia stated they were hit with a long range missile from “Country X” and provided pictures of identifiable debris, would anyone actually believe them?

      • Wodge@lemmy.world
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        1 year ago

        I doubt anyone would actually care. They’re getting weapons from NATO members, Russia wouldn’t do anything in retaliation.

        • MotoAsh@lemmy.world
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          1 year ago

          Russia would VERY MUCH care, and so would any NATO nation for what it’d mean. If a NATO weapon hits Russia, Russia will at minimum start actually threatening nuclear strikes, and probably throw down a lot more of their military to start threatening NATO directly.

          No, they wouldn’t win sh*t anyways, even if they started using the four nukes that are still operational, but a properly thrashing Russia would be very ugly for the whole region regardless of how fast NATO ‘could’ end Russia.

          • Wodge@lemmy.world
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            1 year ago

            Russia has already threatened nuclear strikes. Russia is all threats and no hot sauce. No one believes Putey any more.

            • MotoAsh@lemmy.world
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              1 year ago

              Oh I know, but after he’d me making threats he actually meant (and still couldn’t pull off) while impotently pounding his fist on a mile long table.

    • Dremor@lemmy.world
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      1 year ago

      That would have been a possibility if someone donated them some. Wich isn’t the case yet, at least officially.

        • Dremor@lemmy.world
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          1 year ago

          Sure. Absence of proof isn’t proof of absence, but nor is it a proof of occurence. Best we can do is to wait for someone to do an error in order to be able to know a bit more.