For example, the question “Are you going into town?” might be answered by an American with, “I might,” and by a Brit with “I might do”. In past tense it would be “I might have” vs. “I might have done”.
This is all perfectly systematic and grammatical - this person just has a different grammar than you do. Though I guess that’s what Nazis do best: enforcing arbitrary standards in systems they don’t understand to destroy diversity to everyone’s detriment.
Could you give some more examples of this? Because I don’t think I agree that it’s even technically correct, though I don’t have a proper argument as for why. I feel like this is more likely a non-native speaker picking up on a structure like “does your X do Y?” and repurposing it incorrectly.
Thanks so much for these, I really enjoyed reading them. I’m not sure it’s the same thing though to be honest. I feel like in this example, ‘does’ is where ‘do’ would go. Eg ‘do your family members? Do your staff? Does your partner?’
In your links I think the closest examples are those saying that they need to add a word after ‘do’ to clarify what kind of ‘do’ it is, eg something like ‘Does your medical clinic do that?’
It’s definitely the same thing. We can test this using other modals and auxiliaries in equivalent question constructions to show that we’re dealing with analogous structures:
If making a question with “might”, for example (with the pro-predicate base sentence “But your medical clinic might do”), we get “But might your medical clinic do?”
With “would”, “But would your medical clinic do?”
So, with “dummy do”/do-support leading to the insertion of “do” for inversion purposes, along with the separate pro-predicate “do” lower in the clause, “Your medical clinic does” (or possibly “Your medical clinic does do”) becomes in the same way “Does your medical clinic do?”
“does your medical clinic do”
Bring back grammar nazis
This is common in British English.
For example, the question “Are you going into town?” might be answered by an American with, “I might,” and by a Brit with “I might do”. In past tense it would be “I might have” vs. “I might have done”.
This is all perfectly systematic and grammatical - this person just has a different grammar than you do. Though I guess that’s what Nazis do best: enforcing arbitrary standards in systems they don’t understand to destroy diversity to everyone’s detriment.
Could you give some more examples of this? Because I don’t think I agree that it’s even technically correct, though I don’t have a proper argument as for why. I feel like this is more likely a non-native speaker picking up on a structure like “does your X do Y?” and repurposing it incorrectly.
Here’s a blog post about it, and here’s a StackExchange exchange about it.
Thanks so much for these, I really enjoyed reading them. I’m not sure it’s the same thing though to be honest. I feel like in this example, ‘does’ is where ‘do’ would go. Eg ‘do your family members? Do your staff? Does your partner?’ In your links I think the closest examples are those saying that they need to add a word after ‘do’ to clarify what kind of ‘do’ it is, eg something like ‘Does your medical clinic do that?’
It’s definitely the same thing. We can test this using other modals and auxiliaries in equivalent question constructions to show that we’re dealing with analogous structures:
If making a question with “might”, for example (with the pro-predicate base sentence “But your medical clinic might do”), we get “But might your medical clinic do?”
With “would”, “But would your medical clinic do?”
So, with “dummy do”/do-support leading to the insertion of “do” for inversion purposes, along with the separate pro-predicate “do” lower in the clause, “Your medical clinic does” (or possibly “Your medical clinic does do”) becomes in the same way “Does your medical clinic do?”
Wow that’s standard? It was the most awkward thing I’ve read all day. I feel bad for you guys out there…
Do you mean us guys where the language originated?
The uk didn’t invent English. The German ancestors did hence the term grammar Nazi.
They might not be native English speakers.
https://emontheinternet.me/
Not a native speaker here, what would be correct?
“Does your medical clinic use Linux?” or just “Does your medical clinic?”
“Do you do” is redundant. Of course you do do if you do. You just do.
How do you?
Howdy
That was not the question though.
This is common and considered correct in British English.
Assuming you’re asking about American English. Here is the revised scenario.
“I use Linux”
“Does your medical clinic?”
In this example the response is in a new sentence. So one should also include the subject in the new sentence.
“Does your medical clinic also use Linux?”
Clearly this post was written by Tim Robinson.
Best I can do is actual Nazis.