TheOneWithTheHair@lemmy.world to Lemmy Shitpost@lemmy.worldEnglish · 1 year agoA good deal of IT work, toolemmy.worldimagemessage-square155fedilinkarrow-up11.32Karrow-down144
arrow-up11.27Karrow-down1imageA good deal of IT work, toolemmy.worldTheOneWithTheHair@lemmy.world to Lemmy Shitpost@lemmy.worldEnglish · 1 year agomessage-square155fedilink
minus-squareℛ𝒶𝓋ℯ𝓃@pawb.sociallinkfedilinkarrow-up4arrow-down1·1 year agoTake an English class, I’m sure YouTube has a good video explaining it (basically there are different “degrees” of past tense, did / had done etc.)
minus-squareSpaceNoodle@lemmy.worldlinkfedilinkarrow-up1arrow-down10·1 year agoIt’s still not implicit just because you inferred it.
minus-squareTheFriendlyDickhead@lemm.eelinkfedilinkarrow-up4arrow-down1·1 year agoWell the word “before” doesn’t need to implicit. The “had” in I’d is more than enough past for the sentence to make sense
minus-squareSpaceNoodle@lemmy.worldlinkfedilinkarrow-up1arrow-down5·1 year agoNo, that simply indicated that they had not done the thing, i.e. at all.
minus-squareSpaceNoodle@lemmy.worldlinkfedilinkarrow-up1arrow-down2·1 year agoNo, they never said “before.”
minus-squareschmidtster@lemmy.worldlinkfedilinkarrow-up1arrow-down1·edit-210 months agodeleted by creator
minus-squareStriker@lemmy.worldMlinkfedilinkarrow-up1·1 year ago@SpaceNoodle@lemmy.world I see a lot of toxic behaviour from you here and I will be keeping a closer eye on you in the future. As you @schmidtster@lemmy.world try not to bring disputes started in other comment chains into this one.
minus-squareℛ𝒶𝓋ℯ𝓃@pawb.sociallinkfedilinkarrow-up2arrow-down1·1 year agoIn the English language, an action I “had done” is before an action I “did.” It’s a grammatical case, not an inference.
minus-squareSpaceNoodle@lemmy.worldlinkfedilinkarrow-up1arrow-down3·1 year agoHe stated that he had not done it, not that he had not done it before.
minus-squaresaigot@lemmy.calinkfedilinkarrow-up2arrow-down1·edit-21 year agoNo native English speaker would say it like that. You’d say “doing something I never even did”.
minus-squareSpaceNoodle@lemmy.worldlinkfedilinkarrow-up1arrow-down2·edit-21 year agoNo native English speaker would say it like you said.
Take an English class, I’m sure YouTube has a good video explaining it (basically there are different “degrees” of past tense, did / had done etc.)
It’s still not implicit just because you inferred it.
Well the word “before” doesn’t need to implicit. The “had” in I’d is more than enough past for the sentence to make sense
No, that simply indicated that they had not done the thing, i.e. at all.
i.e. at all before that time
No, they never said “before.”
deleted by creator
@SpaceNoodle@lemmy.world I see a lot of toxic behaviour from you here and I will be keeping a closer eye on you in the future.
As you @schmidtster@lemmy.world try not to bring disputes started in other comment chains into this one.
deleted by creator
In the English language, an action I “had done” is before an action I “did.” It’s a grammatical case, not an inference.
He stated that he had not done it, not that he had not done it before.
No native English speaker would say it like that. You’d say “doing something I never even did”.
No native English speaker would say it like you said.